Questions asked by students 2
1) I can't remember or find out what a germ-line mutation is. Can you
help me out on this?
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Germ-line mutations are those that occur in gametes (eggs or sperm). They
are passed on to every cell of the resulting zygote. Sperm and eggs are
sometimes referred to as the germ-line cells.
2) I was wondering if you could further explain how to figure out dihybrid
crosses and testcross.
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Go to the web page titled setting up punnett squares for doing dihybrid
crosses. That takes you through each step.
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A test cross is performed whenever you have an unknown genotype (AA or
Aa). When one allele shows complete dominance, the resulting phenotypes
of AA and Aa would be the same so you wouldn't know its genotype. In order
to tell whether the individual is AA or Aa, you would cross it with a homozygous
recessive. The results would tell you whether the unknown was heterozygous
Aa, or homozygous AA. A heterozygous, Aa, would have a 1:1 phenotype result.
A homozygous, AA, would all have offspring of the same phenotype.
AA x aa =
all offspring are heterozygotes with the same phenotype
Aa x
aa = offspring have a 1:1 phenotype.
One half are heterozygotes and are phenotypically display the dominant
trait. The other half phenotypically display the recessive trait.
3) I am going over mitosis and meiosis and seem to be missing a key
part that is just not making sense to me and I was hoping you could help
clarify for me. I understand that at S in Interphase, the chromosomes
are replicated, so that in mitosis you have 92 sister chromatids and 46
chromosomes -the diploid number in the cell. And in mitosis, the
chromatids are separated, and because they become individual chromosomes,
when you go through cytokinesis and divide into 2 cells, each cell has
46 chromosomes. I guess I am getting confused on how you maintain
the amount of DNA. You end up with 46 chromosomes in mitosis.
In meiosis, however, you have homologous chromosomes to start, right?
So after S in interphase, you would have 23 homologous pairs?
In Anaphase I, the homologues are separated, leaving 2 cells each with
23 individual chromosomes (as 2 sister chromatids) at the end of Meiosis
I? Then in Meiosis II, which I think is the same as mitosis, the chromatids
are separated, leaving 23 individual replicated (daughter) chromosomes
in 4 cells, thus maintaining the haploid number. I think the numbers
are confusing me a lot, but writing this out may have helped, if my thought
processes are correct. I guess I get
confused because the sister chromatids each become their own chromosome.
So if you can understand it, please let me know if my thinking is correct.
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You have mitosis right except in mitosis you also always
have 23 homologous pairs. We didn't talk about the chromosomes being
homologous at that state because the chromosomes don't pair up in mitosis.
The cell always has 23 pairs of chromosomes (for a total of 46 chromosomes).
When the cell replicates at S phase (both in mitosis and meiosis) you maintain
the number of chromosomes at 46 (23 homologous pairs) but the volume (weight)
of the DNA is doubled and this is represented by each chromosome now consisting
of two sister chromatids. At the end of mitosis, you've separated
the sister chromatids (now individually called chromosomes) to keep the
46 chromosome number and to bring the weight of the DNA back to what it
was before being doubled in S phase.
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During meiosis (remember that the DNA double in weight
during S phase) we talked about homologous chromosomes because the first
division (meiosis I) divides the DNA by sending one of each of the homologous
pair (with sister chromatids) to separate daughter cells. At
this point you cut the volume of the DNA in half (but remember it was doubled
to start with). The two daughter cells are haploid with 23 chromosomes,
each consisting of two sister chromatids.
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During Meiosis II you cut the volume of DNA in half
again by separating the sister chromatids. Each haploid daughter
cell from Meiosis I undergoes a division that separates the sister chromatids
into separate cells (still maintaining the 23 chromosomes, but now they
don't consist of sister chromatids) for a total of four daughter cells
each having half the chromosomes and DNA volume of the starting cell before
S phase.
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In Meiosis the starting cell:
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S phase
- DNA volume doubles (46 chromosomes with 92 chromatids)
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end of Meiosis I - DNA volume cut in
half (23 chromosomes with 46 chromatids) in 2 daughter cells.
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end of Meiosis II - DNA volume cut into half
again (23 chromosomes no longer consisting of sister chromatids) in 4 daughter
cells.
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So, in all of meiosis, you double x (x is the volume of starting
DNA) to make 2x, you divide once to bring the volume back to x,
you divide again to end up with 1/2 x in your 4 daughter cells.
I hope this helps.
4) If you have an XY zygote, and the Y doesn't have SRY, do you have
a female?
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Yes, that was how SRY was discovered. The person was phenotypically
female but her karyotype was male. When they studied the Y chromosome
they found that there was a deletion. One of the genes deleted was
SRY. They also observed a male with a karyotype XX. On closer
examination, a portion of Y was observed attached to another chromosome
(translocation). This portion of the Y chromosome had the SRY thus
allowing the embryo to develop as a male.
5) Are deletion, duplication, inversion, and reciprocal translocation different
from non-disjunction or are they subsets? How does a chromosome break?
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Non-disjunction results in whole chromosomes being deleted or increased
in a gamete due to the homologous chromosome pair, or sister chromatids
not separating in anaphase I or II respectively. Deletion, duplication,
inversion, and reciprocal translocation involve just a portion of a chromosome.
It is not a subset of non-disjunction. The gamete would still have the
right chromosome number. These breaks are sometimes the result of DNA damage
from chemical or radiation exposure. Sometimes a mutual deletion and duplication
happens to nonsister chromatids during crossing over. One nonsister chromatid
ends up with extra genes, and the other loses genes.
6) If X inactivation shuts down one of the X chromosomes in women,
how can you be sure the one that's shut down doesn't have the dominant
allele? I understand that the Barr Bodies are random (right?), so
each cell could have a different X shut off.
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In some of the cells, the one that shuts down does have the dominant allele.
Apparently the protein expressed from one half of one dominant allele must
be sufficient to give a normal phenotype. I am a carrier for color
blindness. When I'm tested it is difficult for me to make out the numbers
buried in the dots, although I can still make them out. According
to other people, the numbers are very obvious. My colorblind sons
can't see them at all.
7) I have a question about one of the problems on the practice test.
#33 asks what the resulting ratio would be if two heterozygotes were crossed.
(Aa x Aa) I thought the answer would be 1:3 homozygous to heterozygous.
The anwswer key says that the ratio is 1:1. If you could please explain
why I would appreciate it.
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(Aa x Aa) would give you two homozygotes AA which is homozygous dominant,
and aa which is homozygous recessive. You would also get two heterozygotes,
Aa. Therefore your ratio is 2 homozygotes to 2 heterozygotes which
is the same as 1:1. This is their genotype. I think you were
coming up with their phenotype (appearance) which would be 3:1 (3 of the
dominant appearance, 1 of the recessive).
8) I am a little confused with describing the characteristic changes that
occur in the spindle apparatus during each phase in mitosis. Could
you explain the changes to me?
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The mitotic spindle consists of microtubules that arise in an area called
the centrosome. These microtubules control the movement of the chromosomes
during mitosis and also elongate the cell during anaphase. For a
step by step description see p210. Check out the chapter review on p222
for a brief description.
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Interphase - centrosomes replicate
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Prophase - microtubules begin radiating from the two centrosomes, and the
centrosomes begin moving towards opposite sides of the cell.
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Prometaphase - The centrosomes continue to move to opposite sides of the
cell. The kinetochore microtubules attach to the sister chromatids
at their kinetochore. Nonkinetochore microtubules interact with nonkinetochore
microtubules from opposite ends of the cell.
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Metaphase - The kinetochore microtubules adjust to line up all chromosomes
on an imaginary plate across the middle of the cell.
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Anaphase - The kinetochore microtubules begin to shorten. This separates
the sister chromatids and they move to opposite sides of the cell.
At the same times, the nonkinetochore microtubules lengthen pushing the
poles farther apart (elongating the cell).
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Telophase - The kinetochore microtubules disappear once all of the chromosomes
are at opposite poles. Once the cell is long enough, the nonkinetochore
microtubules quickly disappear and cytokinesis takes place.
9) Why is cancer more prevalent in older people?
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Cancer is more prevalent in older people because it takes a series of mutations
in one cell in order for a cell to start dividing uncontrollably, lose
density dependent inhibition and anchorage dependency. The older
the person, the more likely these mutations have accumulated either randomly
or through chemical or radiation exposures.
10) I am not sure what genetic recombination is or how it occurs.
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Genetic recombination is the production of offspring with allele combinations
different from those in the parents. This can come about through
independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis or through crossing
over during prophase I of Meiosis (where non-sister chromatids exchange
genes).
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An example of genetic recombinants due to independent assortment are the
green-round peas and the yellow-wrinkled peas from parents that were yellow-round
and green-wrinkled.
11) I understand what a phenotypic ration is. A monohybrid
cross will have a 3:1 ratio in the F2 generation. What will the genotypic
ratio be in the F1 and F2 generation for a monohybrid cross?
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These are the genotypes in Mendel's crosses for one character (gene):
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P - (AA) x (aa) true breeders
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F1- the genotype is all Aa (heterozygotes)
- the phenotype would be that all express the dominant trait
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F2 - the genotype is 1AA: 2Aa: 1aa - the phenotype
is 3:1 (3 expressing the dominant trait to 1 expressing the recessive trait.
12) I have read page 269-271 a ton of times and still don't understand
this: Explain why a recessive sex-linked gene is always expressed in human
males.
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A recessive sex linked gene would be on the X chromosome because the Y
only has a few genes and they are all involved with male sexual development.
When we say sex-linked, we are really saying X-linked.
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Since a male only has one X chromosome (remember he is XY) that is the
only copy of the gene that he has. There is no corresponding copy
of this gene on his Y chromosome. A female has two X chromosomes (XX).
Therefore she has two copies (2 alleles) of every gene on the X-chromosome.
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When a male has a mutated gene on his only X-chromosome, it is always expressed
since he doesn't have another allele (only one X chromosome) to compensate.
I hope this helps.